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«Date revised: September 28, 2016 Date effective: October 10, 2016 The following sample exam for Instrument Rating Airplane (IRA) is suitable study ...»

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Date revised: September 28, 2016

Date effective: October 10, 2016

The following sample exam for Instrument Rating Airplane (IRA) is suitable study material for all the Instrument Rating

tests including helicopters. Although these questions are airplane based they represent the same type of questions

that can be found on all Instrument Rating tests. The applicant must realize that these questions are to be used as a

study guide, and are not necessarily actual test questions. The full IRA test contains 60 questions. The Application Identification, Information Verification and Authorization Requirements Matrix lists all FAA exams. It is available at http://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/media/testing_matrix.pdf.

The FAA testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These publications include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test questions. FAA-CT-8080-3, Computer Testing Supplement for Instrument Rating is available at http://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/test_questions/media/FAA-CT-8080-3E.pdf.

The Learning Statement Reference Guide for Airman Knowledge Testing contains listings of learning statements with their associated codes. Matching the learning statement codes with the codes listed on your Airman Knowledge Test Report assists in the evaluation of knowledge areas missed on your exam. It is available at http://www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/media/LearningStatementReferenceGuide.pdf.

1 Instrument Rating Airplane Sample Exam with ACS Codes - October 10, 2016

1. PLT172 IR.III.A.K8 ATC can issue a STAR

A) to all pilots wherever STARs are available.

B) only if the pilot requests a STAR in the `Remarks` section of the flight plan.

C) when ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests `No STAR.`

2. PLT128 IR.V.B.R1 On initial climb-out after takeoff and with the autopilot engaged, you encounter icing conditions. In this situation you can expect

A) ice to accumulate on the underside of the wings due to the higher AOA.

B) the autopilot to hold the vertical speed, if the anti-icing boots are working.

C) the increased airflow under the wings to prevent the accumulation of ice.

3. PLT509 IR.III.A.K10 (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Addendum A, Figure 158.) With winds reported as from 330° at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 4 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner departs from runway 29.

What effect would you expect from that airliners vortices?

A) The winds will push the vortices southeast of your takeoff path.

B) The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.

C) The downwind vortex will rapidly dissipate.

4. PLT170 IR.III.A.K8 While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed when

A) ground speed changes more than 5 knots.

B) average TAS changes 10 knots or 5 percent.

C) ground speed changes by 10 MPH or more.

5. PLT224 IR.I.C.K7 You may cancel an IFR flight plan

A) at any time as long as you advise ATC.

B) only in an emergency.

C) if in VMC outside class A airspace.

6. PLT141 IR.III.A.K1 While performing a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds. What action should you take?

A) continue as directed.

B) advise "unable" and remain clear of clouds.

C) deviate as needed; then rejoin the approach.

7. PLT382 IR.VI.B.K4 If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?

A) As a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet.

B) As an RVR of 2,400 feet.

C) As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.


8. PLT321 IR.VI.B.K4 If the ILS outer marker is inoperative, you may substitute

A) a compass locator or precision radar.

B) VOR radials that identify the location.

C) Distant Measuring Equipment (DME).

9. PLT292 IR.I.C.K4 If the plan view on an approach chart does not include a procedure turn barb, that means

A) a procedure turn is not authorized.

B) you should fly a teardrop entry.

C) a racetrack-type turn is required.

10. PLT083 IR.I.C.K4 (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Addendum A, Figure 227.) Refer to the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure. The FAF intercept altitude is A) 7,080 feet MSL.

B) 7,977 feet MSL.

C) 8,000 feet MSL.

11. PLT083 IR.VI.A.K1 (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Legend 21 and Addendum A, Figure 242.) You have been cleared for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach to LIT. At a ground speed of 105 knots, what are the vertical descent angle and rate of descent on final approach?

A) 2.82 degrees and 524 feet per minute.

B) 3.00 degrees and 557 feet per minute.

C) 4.00 degrees and 550 feet per nautical mile.

12. PLT370 IR.VI.B.K1 You have not yet been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear that you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action. You should

A) turn outbound and complete the procedure turn.

B) continue as assigned and query ATC.

C) turn inbound and join the final approach course.

13. PLT012 IR.I.C.S5 (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figures 21, 22, and 24.) If the average fuel consumption is 17.5 GPH, how much fuel would you use on the flight between Grand Junction, CO and Durango, CO?

A) 17 gallons.

B) 20 gallons.

C) 25 gallons.

3 14. PLT292 IR.III.A.K8 Flying clear of clouds on an instrument flight plan, what are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP?

A) The controller must determine that the pilot can see the airport at the altitude flown and can remain clear of clouds.

B) The controller must have determined that the visibility was at least 1 mile and be reasonably sure the pilot can remain clear of clouds.

C) The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds.

15. PLT222 IR.III.A.K8 During a takeoff into IMC with low ceilings, you should contact departure

A) before entering the clouds.

B) when the tower instructs the change.

C) upon reaching traffic pattern altitude.

16. PLT406 IR.VI.B.K4 A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action is appropriate if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?

A) The pilot should inform ATC of the malfunction and then descend immediately to the localizer DH and make a localizer approach.

B) The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope.

C) The pilot must request an LOC approach, and may descend below the VASI at the pilot`s discretion.

17. PLT202 IR.II.B.K2c The greatest DME indication error between actual ground distance and displayed ground distance occurs at

A) high altitudes far from the VORTAC.

B) high altitudes close to the VORTAC.

C) low altitudes far from the VORTAC.

18. PLT322 IR.I.C.K9 You are planning an IFR flight off established airways below 18,000 feet MSL. If you use VOR navigation to define the route, the maximum distance between NavAids should be A) 40 NM.

B) 70 NM.

C) 80 NM.

19. PLT354 IR.VI.A.K3 If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available prior to beginning a GPS approach, the pilot should

A) continue the approach, expecting to recapture the satellites before reaching the FAF.

B) use a navigation or approach system other than GPS for an approach.

C) continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured.


20. PLT322 IR.II.B.K2b When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?

A) The first movement of the CDI as the airplane enters the zone of confusion.

B) The moment the TO FROM indicator becomes blank.

C) The first positive, complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator.

21. PLT300 IR.II.B.K2b When flying directly over a published airborne VOR checkpoint, what is the maximum error allowed for IFR flight?

A) Plus or minus 6° of the designated radial.

B) Plus or minus 4° of the designated radial.

C) Plus 6° or minus 4° of the designated radial.

22. PLT049 IR.V.A.S6 (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figures 60A and 61.) Determine your position relative to the PLATS intersection, glide slope, and localizer course.

A) Past PLATS, below the glide slope, and right of the localizer course.

B) Approaching PLATS, above the glide slope, and left of the localizer course.

C) Past PLATS, above the glide slope, and right of the localizer course.

23. PLT058 IR.I.C.K4 (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 87.) What is indicated by the localizer course symbol at Jefferson County Airport?

A) A published LDA localizer course with voice capability.

B) A published SDF localizer course with back course capabilities.

C) A published ILS localizer course which has an additional navigation function.

24. PLT058 IR.I.C.K4 (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 91.) When flying a northbound IFR flight on V257, what is the minimum crossing altitude at DBS VORTAC?

A) 7,500 feet.

B) 8,600 feet.

C) 11,100 feet.

25. PLT083 IR.V.B.K9 (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Addendum A, Figure 230.) The minimum safe altitude (MSA) for the VOR/DME or GPS-A at 7D3 is geographically centered on what position?

A) DEANI intersection.


C) Baldwin Municipal Airport.

26. PLT058 IR.I.C.K4 (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 24.) While passing near the CORTEZ VOR, southbound on V187, contact is lost with Denver Center. You should attempt to reestablish contact with Denver Center on A) 133.425 MHz.

B) 122.1 MHz and receive on 108.4 MHz.

C) 122.35 MHz.


27. PLT100 IR.I.C.K4 Military training routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet are depicted on

A) IFR Planning Charts.

B) IFR Low Altitude En Route Charts.

C) IFR High Altitude En Route Charts.

28. PLT058 IR.I.C.K4 (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 53.) What is indicated by the inverse `H` symbol in the radio aids to navigation box for SAN MARCUS VORTAC?

A) VOR with TACAN compatible DME.

B) The availability of HIWAS.

C) The VOR has a high altitude SSV Class Designator.

29. PLT442 IR.I.A.K2 To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR,

you must have logged within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight, in the same category of aircraft:

A) holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems, and six instrument approaches.

B) 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft, and six instrument approaches.

C) six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft.

30. PLT379 IR.I.C.K12 Determine the alternate minimums for an airport with a precision approach procedure.

A) 400 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

B) 600 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

C) 800 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

31. PLT443 IR.I.A.K1 A certificated commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night or in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least

A) a type rating.

B) a first class medical certificate.

C) an instrument rating in the same category of aircraft.

32. PLT442 IR.I.A.K2 What are the requirements to log an ILS approach in VMC conditions for instrument currency?

A) The flight must remain on an IFR flight plan throughout the approach and landing.

B) The ILS approach can be credited only if you use a view-limiting device and log the name of the safety pilot.

C) The ILS approach can be credited regardless of actual weather if you are issued an IFR clearance.

33. PLT370 IR.I.C.K11 When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?

A) When operating in the Class E airspace.

B) When operating in a Class A airspace.

C) When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.


34. PLT317 IR.I.B.R5 (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-3E, Figure 13.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter?

A) Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft.

B) Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft.

C) Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft.

35. PLT291 IR.I.B.K1 Area forecasts generally include a forecast period of 18 hours and cover a geographical

A) terminal area.

B) area less than 3,000 square miles.

C) area the size of several states.

36. PLT288 IR.I.B.K1 Which weather product is a concise statement of the expected weather for an airport`s runway complex?

A) Area Forecast (FA).

B) Weather Depiction Charts.

C) Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).

37. PLT284 IR.I.B.S1 Decode the excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB) for OKC at 39,000 feet.

FT 3000 9000 12000 24000 39000 OKC 9900 2018+00 2130-06 2361-30 830558

A) Wind 130° at 50 knots, temperature -58 °C.

B) Wind 330° at 105 knots, temperature -58 °C.

C) Wind 330° at 205 knots, temperature -58 °C.

38. PLT288 IR.I.B.S1 Use the TAF to determine the wind shear forecast.

TAF KCVG 231051Z 231212 12012KT 4SM –RA BR OVC008 WS005/27050KT TEMPO 1719 1/2SM –RA FG FM1930 09012KT 1SM –DZ BR VV003 BECMG 2021 5SM HZ=

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